What was the most "benevolent" empire during the second age of Imperialism(1800-1970)?

[Hugh Third of Five]

The only exception to the Dutch Colonial Empire being more populous than the French would be during the Napoleonic period when the Dutch and their colonies were annexed by France, and the period after Indonesian independence in 1949 (and of course the French Empire didn't hang around much longer after that). Populations varied dramatically, but the Dutch colonial empire being one of the most populous colonial empires is pretty consistent throughout the given period.

The Napoleonic era (except the portion of 1799 during which he was first consul) falls within the 1800-1970 interval. So does most but not all decolonization. That's why I said 1800-1970 is a long time.

 

[SealTheRealDeal]

The Napoleonic era (except the portion of 1799 during which he was first consul) falls within the 1800-1970 interval. So does most but not all decolonization. That's why I said 1800-1970 is a long time.

So there's at most a 25 year period when the French had more colonial subjects than the Dutch, in a 170 year long period. That doesn't change that the Dutch were never the least populous colonial empire, and if anything means that more people had lived under Dutch colonial rule than French colonial rule in the give period.

 

[Zheng He]

Mainland or in a colony? Which colonies? I'd rather live in London than any of the dominions and them before the Raj. Hong Kong is a maybe. ... before ww2

Colony, meaning member of the native population, not colonist. As in if you had to be a member of a population subjected to colonial rule, who would you prefer to have live under? I realize it is something of a sliding scale because there were variations in colonial policies from colony to colony.

 

[AltoRegnant]

Colony, meaning member of the native population, not colonist. As in if you had to be a member of a population subjected to colonial rule, who would you prefer to have live under? I realize it is something of a sliding scale because there were variations in colonial policies from colony to colony.

Well personally i'd rather die because of the omnipresent shit, but I've heard decent things about (again, pre ww2) Hong Kong.

 

[Sam R.]

Probably the US. Benevolence is marketting, and the US wasn't even identified as imperialist by other than Marxists and Anarchists and Phillipinxs and other Americans until the 1970s.

So faking it. And great marketting for their genocides.

 

[mspence]

Japan got into the Empire-building game rather late. The US created territories rather than outright colonies. I'd say Britain was more benevolent later on.