Miscellaneous >1900 (Alternate) History Thread

No, France has been on the winning team for several wars since the 1700s. Bold = Wars fought partially on French soil
American Revolution
War of the First Coalition (actually all of them except the Sixth and Seventh)
Crimean War
World War I
World War II
* (While the French government infamously keeled over quickly, the French Resistance put up a better fight. France was liberated at the end of World War II, so a part of a winning team.)
France was on the winning side in WW2, despite early losses, so it didn't lose. Similarly, Britain also didn't lose despite at times being ejected from several countries by axis forces.
To use a sporting analogy, winning and losing is based on the end result, not the earlier scoreline.
 
France was on the winning side in WW2, despite early losses, so it didn't lose. Similarly, Britain also didn't lose despite at times being ejected from several countries by axis forces.
To use a sporting analogy, winning and losing is based on the end result, not the earlier scoreline.
I agree with you completely.
 
This isn't for a TL or anything, just a throwaway question I was curious about, what are the odds that a war similar to WW1 would take place if the assassination of Franz Ferdinand completely failed? considering how many other events led up to the war I'd assume so, but it's not really my area of expertise
 
not sure if this should be in pre or post 1900 so apologies if this is the wrong place BUT: if the byzantine kingdom survives in some way what would the lgbt rights situation be like there? would we have constantiople pride?
 
not sure if this should be in pre or post 1900 so apologies if this is the wrong place BUT: if the byzantine kingdom survives in some way what would the lgbt rights situation be like there? would we have constantiople pride?
I dont know the situation about Greece and LGBT, but in the Ottoman Empire the government usually didnt prosecute against Gays just because it really wasnt worth their time. Now, of course the situations around the 1800's-1900's Ottoman Empire and alternate Byzantium would be very different; but i think a lot of the bureocratic problems of modernising would be present in an alternative Byzantium, especially since the same harsh geography that doesnt allow full government control is in place. The Ottomans in 1857 was probably a better place for gays than Britain in 1957 as long as you kept it somewhat secret. Altough now that i think about it, that had a lot to do with the Islamic concepts of "Bromance" and "Friendship" that allowed these relationships to be somewhat more acceptable from the outside.
 
Mexico on the other hand was conquered by a couple dozen shipwrecked Spanish dudes.
You forgot to mention how like 99% (I forgot the exact number) of Cortez' army existed out of other Meso-Americans fed up with Aztec rule.
Oh, and that Moctezuma had the 'brilliant' idea to invite Cortez into Tenochtitlan...
 
'AHC: Japanese Civil War In The 1930s'.
I think had the February 26 incident coup been successful it could have triggered a civil war fairly easily. The coup had support from parts of the military but as I understand it parts of the army high command and the entire navy were very much opposed to it as was Hirohito who wanted the coup crushed. If the coup had been a little more successful and taken control of the civilian government it could cause at least a short civil war between the localists and coup allied forces of which I assume the loyalists would win just due to outnumbering them and having the back of most of the military and government.
 
Was there any chance that a "Marshall Plan for Russia" could have worked (making Russia a stable democracy and rebuilding its economy), or is this overly optimistic? IIRC the reason it wasn't done in real life is because the Russian government was seen as too corrupt to use the money properly/there was not enough money for it?
 
Was there any chance that a "Marshall Plan for Russia" could have worked (making Russia a stable democracy and rebuilding its economy), or is this overly optimistic? IIRC the reason it wasn't done in real life is because the Russian government was seen as too corrupt to use the money properly/there was not enough money for it?
I honestly don't think it would have worked all that well for the Americans to just hand the Russian government a boatload of money. Firstly America did the massive spending of the martial plan in the context of World War 2 and the Cold War there was immense sympathy for the Europeans and massive fear of communism spreading so they were willing to give out money by the barrel load to their allies. Russia was different though just a few years before they had been America's greatest rival and even after the fall the relationship was lukewarm at best. Clinton was also not in a political position where he could get away with that kind of spending unlike Truman and Einsenhower who totally were.
But all that is besides the point if they did it anyway it might help a bit but I think 1 many of russias issues were more fundamental issues like oligarchs that could not be ironed out by an influx of American cash. And 2 I think a lot of aid money may be squandered because of corruption as you mentioned.
 
WI: One of the Romanov children survived a more hastily carried out execution, was rescued and nursed back to health by the Whites, only to be recaptured by the Bolsheviks when they won the war?
What would happen to them?
 
Why did Germany in WW1 keep struggling in the West for inches of land at the cost of huge casualties, and not simply focus in the East where they were having more successes?
 
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